
Môn Công cụ phái sinh (Derivatives CFA) là một trong số những môn học được các ứng viên của Viện CFA bình chọn là môn học khó nhất trong Level 2. Vậy kiến thức của nó về cái gì và thực sự khó không, có cách nào học chúng đơn giản hơn không? Hãy cùng TACA khám phá trong bài viết dưới đây nhé!
Nhìn ching thì môn học này không có quá nhiều công thức, chủ yếu môn học sẽ yêu cầu bạn nắm được nhiều lý thuyết về các công cụ phái sinh, về thị trường chứng khoán, cổ phiếu, trái phiếu,…
| Level | Tỷ trọng | Số lượng câu hỏi | Số lượng công thức |
| Level 1 | 5-8% | 9-14 | Khoảng 12 |
| Level 2 | 5-10% | 4-8 | Khoảng 20 |
| Level 3 | 5-10% | 8-13 | Khoảng 30 |
Ở Level 1, Viện CFA đưa ra 10 mô-đun cho môn Công cụ phái sinh:
| STT | Mô-đun môn học | Mô tả |
| 1 | Công cụ phái sinh và các đặc điểm của thị trường phái sinh
(Derivative Instrument and Derivative Market Features) |
|
| 2 | Các đặc điểm và công cụ của hợp đồng giao ngay và quyền yêu cầu có điều kiện
(Forward Commitment and Contingent Claim Features and Instruments) |
|
| 3 | Lợi ích, rủi ro của chứng khoán phái sinh và cách các nhà phát hành và nhà đầu tư sử dụng
(Derivative Benefits, Risks, and Issuer and Investor Uses) |
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| 4 | Định giá phái sinh: Trọng tài, tái tạo và chi phí cơ hội
(Arbitrage, Replication, and the Cost of Carry in Pricing Derivatives) |
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| 5 | Định giá và định lượng các hợp đồng kỳ hạn và tài sản cơ sở có kỳ hạn khác nhau
(Pricing and Valuation of Forward Contracts and for an Underlying with Varying Maturities) |
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| 6 | Định giá và định lượng các hợp đồng tương lai
(Pricing and Valuation of Futures Contracts) |
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| 7 | Định giá và định lượng lãi suất và các hợp đồng hoán đổi khác
(Pricing and Valuation of Interest Rates and Other Swaps) |
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| 8 | Định giá và định lượng của các quyền chọn
(Pricing and Valuation of Options) |
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| 9 | Mô phỏng quyền chọn sử dụng Put-Call Parity
(Option Replication Using Put–Call Parity) |
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| 10 | Định giá một công cụ phái sinh bằng mô hình nhị thức một kỳ
(Valuing a Derivative Using a One-Period Binomial Model) |
|
Môn Công cụ phái sinh tế ở Level 2 có 2 mô-đun:
| STT | Mô-đun môn học | Mô tả |
| 1 | Định giá và định lượng các cam kết kỳ hạn
(Pricing and Valuation of Forward Commitments ) |
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| 2 | Định giá quyền tùy chọn
(Valuation of Contingent Claims) |
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Công cụ phái sinh ở Level 3 có 2 mô-đun:
| STT | Mô-đun môn học | Mô tả |
| 1 | Chiến lược quyền chọn
(Options Strategies) |
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| 2 | Các Chiến Lược Hoán Đổi, Hợp Đồng Tương Lai Và Hợp Đồng Kỳ Hạn
(Swaps, Forwards, and Futures Strategies) |
|
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Question 1:
An analyst observes the following market data for one American put option:
| Selected Data | |
|---|---|
| (in CAD) | |
| Stock price | 48 |
| Strike price | 50 |
| Option premium | 4 |
This option’s moneyness is best described as:
Solution:

Moneyness refers to the relationship between an option’s strike price and the underlying stock price and is indicative of the option’s intrinsic value. An option trading at the money or out of the money has no intrinsic value. An option trading in the money has intrinsic value:
In this scenario, the put option’s underlying stock price is less than its strike price. Therefore, the option is trading in the money. Note that the option’s premium is irrelevant to determining the option’s intrinsic value; it would, however, be relevant to determining the option’s profit at exercise.
(Choice B) If the stock price equals the strike price, the option is trading at the money (ATM). At expiration, an ATM option is economically equivalent to owning the underlying asset.
(Choice C) For a call option, if the stock price is less than the strike price, the option is trading out of the money (OTM) and has no intrinsic value. The same is true for a put option if the stock price is greater than the strike price.
Things to remember:
Moneyness refers to the relationship between an option’s strike price and the underlying stock price. If the stock price equals the strike price, the option is trading at the money. For a call (put) option, if the stock price is greater (less) than the strike price, the option is trading in the money. For a call (put) option, if the stock price is less (greater) than the strike price, the option is trading out of the money.
Question 2:
An increase in which of the following is most likely to cause the value of both puts and calls to increase?
Solution:

Volatility refers to the dispersion of the underlying’s prices around its average price and is expressed as standard deviation (distance from the mean). More volatility means a wider range of prices for the underlying, so call and put options both have the potential for higher payoffs. This increased potential can cause time value to increase, which adds to the options’ overall value.
(Choice B) A call option’s strike (ie, exercise) price is inverse to the option’s premium (ie, price an investor pays for the option). Options with lower strike prices are more valuable than otherwise identical call options with higher strike prices since the intrinsic value for in-the-money call options is higher for lower strike options. The relationship between strike price and premium is positive for put options; a higher strike results in a higher premium for puts.
(Choice C) A high interest rate makes call options more valuable since the holder earns interest on the money that is not spent to purchase the underlying asset. By contrast, high interest rates reduce the present value of the expected payoff for a put option, so the put is worth less.
Things to remember:
Volatility of the underlying is a factor that affects the time value of options. Higher volatility increases the value of both put and call options. Higher strike prices increase the value of puts but reduce the value of calls. Higher discount (interest) rates increase the value of calls but reduce the value of puts.
Question 3:
Which of the following best replicates the cash flows of an interest rate swap? A series of:
Solution:

Fixed-for-floating interest rate swaps are over-the-counter (OTC) derivatives in which counterparties agree to exchange a series of fixed payments for a series of floating payments. At each swap payment date:
Swap cash flows are similar to forward rate agreements’ (FRAs’) cash flows (at expiration) since:
Given this similarity, the swap’s cash flows can be replicated by a portfolio of FRAs with expirations matching each swap payment date, all having agreed interest rates equal to the swap’s fixed rate.
(Choice A) Unlike FRAs, futures are exchange-traded derivatives that generate daily cash flows since they are marked to market every trading session. Although a portfolio of interest rate futures could create similar market exposure to that of an interest rate swap, a portfolio of futures could not replicate a swap’s cash flows.
(Choice B) Holders of interest rate calls never incur negative cash flows at expiration. Holders receive either the in-the-money call value in cash or nothing. In contrast, swaps may have positive or negative cash flows on the payment dates.
Things to remember:
A swap is equivalent to a portfolio of forward contracts. The portfolio consists of a forward contract for each swap payment date, each with an expiration coinciding with a swap payment date.
2.2. Câu hỏi Derivatives CFA Level 2
Passage:
Herman Schmidt is a fund manager working at Rosige Zukunft LLC (RZ), a derivatives trading firm. RZ uses the carry arbitrage model to assess the value of bond forward contracts. Exhibit 1 contains information on several German government bonds that pay coupons once per annum and have five years remaining until maturity. Schmidt directs Hedwig Meyer, an RZ analyst, to price forward contracts on Bond A, Bond B, and Bond C. The 6-month risk-free rate is 1.50% and the 1-year risk-free rate is 2.00%.
| Exhibit 1 5-Year German Government Bonds | |||
|---|---|---|---|
| Bond | Coupon rate | YTM | Price |
| Bond A | 0.00% | 3.00% | 86.261 |
| Bond B | 3.00% | 2.80% | 100.921 |
| Bond C | 5.00% | 2.85% | 109.889 |
Schmidt and Meyer discuss different methods for valuing interest rate and currency swaps. Exhibit 2 contains information on at-market EUR and CHF interest rate swaps, and the CHF/EUR exchange rate.
| Exhibit 2 Selected Data Related to 3-Year EUR and CHF Interest Rate and Currency Swaps | |||
|---|---|---|---|
| Spot CHF/EUR currency exchange rate | 1.0500 | ||
| Fixed rate on fixed-for-floating EUR interest rate swap | 1.80% | ||
| Fixed rate on fixed-for-floating CHF interest rate swap | 1.20% | ||
Schmidt has RZ initiate a fixed-for-fixed EUR/CHF currency swap, agreeing to pay 1.20% in CHF and receive 1.80% in EUR. RZ exchanges the swap notional with the counterparty at contract initiation, paying EUR 10 million and receiving CHF 10.5 million. Six months later, at-market 2.5-year fixed-for-fixed EUR/CHF currency swaps are quoted at 1.60% EUR for 1.40% CHF and the spot CHF/EUR exchange rate is 1.1000.
Schmidt anticipates that the equity of Dash Haber Ltd., a UK clothing retailer, will outperform versus expectations. He decides to use a 1-year, quarterly settled, equity-return-for-fixed-interest rate swap to gain long exposure to Dash Haber equity. Exhibit 3 contains information related to the swap:
| Exhibit 3 Selected Data Related to Dash Harber Equity Swaps % | |
|---|---|
| Equity dividend yield | 0.00 |
| 90-day reference interest rate | 2.52 |
| 180-day reference interest rate | 3.07 |
| 270-day reference interest rate | 3.62 |
| 360-day reference interest rate | 4.12 |
| 1-year expected return on commo | 3.85 |
All interest rates are annual compound rates and are based on a 360-day year.
Question 1:
Based on Exhibit 1, the no-arbitrage 6-month forward price of Bond A is most likely:
Solution:
| Exhibit 1 5-Year German Government Bonds | |||
|---|---|---|---|
| Bond | Coupon rate | YTM | Price |
| Bond A | 0.00% | 3.00% | 86.261 |
| Bond B | 3.00% | 2.80% | 100.921 |
| Bond C | 5.00% | 2.85% | 109.889 |
No-arbitrage forward price
F0 = FV (S0 + CC0 – CB0 )
The no-arbitrage forward price of an asset is the:
The forward price of a zero-coupon bond is just the future value of the bond’s spot price since there are:
As a result, CC0 and CB0 in the formula above both equal 0, reducing the calculation of the no-arbitrage forward price to:
Zero-coupon bond forward contract price
F0 = FV ( S0 ) = S0 x (1 + r)T
r = Risk-free rate
T = Time to forward contract expiration
In this scenario, the 6-month forward price of the 5-year zero-coupon bond (ie, Bond A) is calculated as:
F0 = 86.261 (1.015)0.5 = 86.906
If interest rates are positive, the no-arbitrage forward price of an asset with no holding costs or benefits is greater than the asset’s spot price (Choices A and B). The spot/forward price difference reflects the opportunity cost of capital (eg, cost of financing a position in the asset) over the time to the forward contract expiration.
Things to remember:
The no-arbitrage forward price of an asset is the future value of the asset’s spot price adjusted for the costs and benefits of holding the asset to the forward expiration. The forward price of an asset with no holding costs or benefits is above the asset’s spot price by the opportunity cost of capital over the time to the forward expiration.
Question 2:
Based on Exhibit 1, the no-arbitrage 1-year forward price of Bond B is closest to:
Solution:
| Exhibit 1 5-Year German Government Bonds | |||
|---|---|---|---|
| Bond | Coupon rate | YTM | Price |
| Bond A | 0.00% | 3.00% | 86.261 |
| Bond B | 3.00% | 2.80% | 100.921 |
| Bond C | 5.00% | 2.85% | 109.889 |
No-arbitrage forward price of coupon bond
F0 = FV (S0 + CC0 – CB0)
F0 = FV(S0 – CB0)
The no-arbitrage forward price of an asset is the future value of the asset’s spot price adjusted for the costs and benefits of holding the asset to the forward expiration. For a forward contract on a coupon bond, there are:
Therefore, CC0 is dropped from the general forward pricing formula in the image above, so the no-arbitrage forward price calculation reduces to:
Coupon bond forward contract price
F0 = [ S0 – Cpn(1 + r)T ] (1 + r)T
r = Opportunity cost of capital (eg, financing rate)
Cpn = Coupon amount
T = Time to forward contract expiration
In this scenario, the 1-year forward price of the 5-year 3% coupon bond (ie, Bond B) is calculated as follows:
F0 = [ 100.921 – 3.000/(1.02)¹ ] x 1.021
(Choice A) 99.880 is the future value of the spot price minus the full coupon payment (ie, the future value of the coupon). The correct value is calculated by subtracting the present value of the coupon.
(Choice C) 102.939 is the future value of the spot price. This value does not capture the holding benefit of the coupon interest earned from owning the bond.
Things to remember:
There are no explicit carry costs in the forward pricing of securities since the opportunity cost of capital is captured in the future value of the spot price. Therefore, the no-arbitrage forward price of a coupon bond is the future value of the spot price minus the present value of interest earned (including reinvestment income on coupons received prior to expiration).
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[Cập nhật] Bóc trần cấu trúc đề thi CFA: Đừng bỏ lỡ bất kỳ điểm nào!
Bài tập Derivatives CFA (Môn Công cụ phái sinh CFA) kèm đáp án
Chuẩn bị tốt nền tảng kiến thức: Trước khi tìm hiểu sâu về Đầu tư phái sinh, hãy đảm bảo nắm rõ các loại tài sản cơ bản như vốn chủ sở hữu, thu nhập cố định và các khoản đầu tư thay thế.
Lưu ý trọng tâm từng cấp độ:
Có chiến lược học tập hiệu quả:
Công cụ phái sinh là các công cụ tài chính có giá trị bắt nguồn từ một tài sản cơ sở, có thể bao gồm cổ phiếu, tiền tệ, hàng hóa hoặc lãi suất. Ban đầu được thiết kế để phòng ngừa rủi ro hàng hóa, theo thời gian, chúng đã phát triển thành công cụ giúp nhà đầu tư quản lý nhiều hình thức rủi ro khác nhau và đạt được lợi nhuận cao hơn so với các khoản đầu tư truyền thống.
Nhiều thí sinh có thể sẽ thấy môn học này ban đầu hơi khó hiểu vì các khái niệm của nó khá trừu tượng, không có nhiều thứ có thể dễ dàng thấy được trong đời sống hàng ngày như Economics. Nhưng bạn hoàn toàn có thể vượt qua môn học này dễ dàng bằng những phương pháp học tập phù hợp
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